Legal 2C Openers
I'm sure this has been done to death but it comes up so rarely at the table I need help please
Given the following hand (13HCP, 5 Controls) is it legal to open it as 2C
Playing 5CM, 15-17NT, 3 weak twos and 2C is defined as 'GF or 23-24 balanced'?
S: 7
H: A10986
D none
C: AKQ7542
It seems to me that t meets the requirements of BB 7 C 1 (a)
Thanks for your help
Peter Bushby Suffolk
Comments
It looks like it does to me too, though I'm not sure that it's the best way of treating a hand like this, since you won't get to start showing your suits till at least the three-level. I'd prefer to open 1C and then bid hearts a couple of times below game if possible.
There could be considerations of misinformation if they agree that such a hand should be opened 2C and described as GF, which many will take to mean "game in own hand", the traditional interpretation of a GF 2C opener.
At the weekend, playing 2C was the only strong bid but not necessarily game forcing, I found a new reason not to open 2C on two-suiters: you are stuck when they overcall in one of your suits!
AKxxx KQxxx A Ax: 2C (2S) P; X - 3D, 3H - 4D, 5D - P. But 5D-4 was better than declarering 4SX on the 6-0 break.
Interesting point ... but surely the opener isn't responsible for opps interpretation of a particular statement?
As long as opener is prepared to go as far as game opposite a complete bust then isn't the opening genuinely GF?
I agree with Gordon ..... I wouldn't open it 2C ... but I was interested in whether I'd have to allow it as a TD if someone else did.
In fact I held the hand and partner opened 1S .... posing another dilemma .. but this isn't a bidding forum :)
Peter Bushby Suffolk
PS ... I guess a better description would be GF or 23-24 balanced, may be less than 16 HCP but will in that case have 5+ Controls ... ?
Peter Bushby Suffolk
You are responsible if the description is misleading to the opponents, especially when they've asked for an explanation of the bid.
"Genuinely GF" used to mean "we play in game or slam or double the opponents".
I don't think the hand at the top of the thread is happy to bid or double over 5D by the opponents.
When you say "have to allow it" what options does the TD have when someone opens an illegal 2C. It seems to me that the bid stands but is effectively a psyche so unless partner fields it the bidding is legal.
Am I wrong?
If so what does the TD do?
The hand will invariably have been played by the time the TD is called.
See White Book 1.9.7. The penalty for use of an illegal agreement is that the score on the board is automatically adjusted to Av-/Av+ unless the opponents did better than that despite the agreement's use. (Additionally, there can be a PP for disobeying the director if the director had previously told the pair that the agreement was illegal.)