Opening bid that does not satisfy rule of 18

timanderson

Blue Book level 4: "A one-level opening bid in a suit, whether forcing or not, must by agreement show 8+ HCP and, in first and second position, follow the Rule of 18."

I understand this, but what is not clear to me is whether any action should be taken for a one-off instance. Let's say someone opens 1S in first position with something like this:

AJxxxx
Qxxx
x
xxx

The opposition get a bad score and call the director. The hand does not satisfy rule of 18 but there is no partnership agreement on the matter, and no previous infringements are known. Is this then considered a psyche with no rectification? Or is rectification automatic?

Tim

weejonnie

If there is no evidence of any partnership agreement then the call is permissable - although it is probably a good idea to record the incident in case something similar happens again. Maybe the TD should ask their partner whether they would open 1 !s on that hand.

It isn't a psych as it isn't a gross deviation between announced strength/ lengths and actual strength/ lengths. It would be a deviation and, as I say, perfectly permissable for the first occasion that it happens.

Senior_Kibitzer

Try asking me why I opened 1 !s with that particular hand (ok, it's got 14 cards but let's imagine a minor card fewer). If I say it's an obvious opening bid or I suggest that I would "always" open that hand in that seat, you are beginning to get some evidence of a partnership agreement, unless you then get my partner threatening to divorce me if I ever open 1 !s on that hand ever again!

bluejak

I would always ask the player why he opened it and ask his partner whether he would open it.