Explaining after misbid

shed53

Our club has recently restarted face-to-face sessions. They are very low-key, badged as "see your friends again", they take place fortnightly (partly to do with room availability) and I am the TD.
Last week, the following auction took place...
W 1NT -- N Dbl -- E Pass -- S 2H
Pass - pass - pass

S's bid was a transfer - as if her partner had opened 1NT and her RHO had doubled.
Before W led, S explained her misbid, believing she was obliged to do so.
I think no explanation is warranted.

Am I right?
Thanks in anticipation,
Chris Woodhouse

ais523

S has to explain the agreed meaning of the 2H bid in the N/S system. This might be natural, transfer, or "no agreement, possibly a transfer".

If N/S are clear that 2H here is always natural, and S misbid due to, e.g., mistaking what the action was, then S doesn't need to volunteer anything – N's lack of alert (and pass) is the explanation.

If there's some doubt about what the system is (e.g. because the double of 1NT could be interpreted as a "stolen bid", so some people may play a 1NT system over it), and there's any possibility that 2H might be interpreted as a transfer in their system, then S (as a member of the declaring side) must explain the nature of the doubt while the opening lead is face-down. ("No agreement" is alertable if there's any chance that the bid might be meant or taken as artificial, so from S's point of view, there was a missed alert.)

I think the former scenario is more likely here, but we can't know without asking N/S.

(Of course, in a friendly session, S may well want to explain what happened even if there's no legal obligation to do so, in order to avoid confusing the opponents.)

shed53

Thank you, @ais523, for the detailed reply.

As you surmised in your closing comment, S was being helpful, even kind, to avoid confusion - as it was indeed a "friendly" session, and the atmosphere is always laid back and low-key.

What I didn't make clear was that neither E nor W asked N or S for an explanation. In a more regular (should I say formal?) tournament, does this make a difference?

And more generally, if a player misbids for whatever reason, should they explain before card play begins even if neither of their opponents asks?

Senior_Kibitzer

"What I didn't make clear was that neither E nor W asked N or S for an explanation. In a more regular (should I say formal?) tournament, does this make a difference?"

In the actual auction with nothing alerted, there would be no particular reason for any EW to ask about anything

"And more generally, if a player misbids for whatever reason, should they explain before card play begins even if neither of their opponents asks?"

Law 40C2: " ... no player is obliged to disclose to his opponents that he has deviated from his announced methods." That applies even after the end of the play of the board but it is considered polite to explain after the end of the play of the board.

What you must not do is reveal that you have misbid before the end of the auction if you become the declaring side or before the end of the play if you become the defending side. I would recommend that even if you become declarer, you should not say anything till the end of the play of the board as I have known such comments to discombobulate opponents rather than help them.

shed53

Hi Barrie,

Thanks very much. That's perfectly clear.

Cheers,
Chris